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c/t2dglp1·submitted 7 months ago by u/long_post_larry

anyone else notice hypoglycaemia kicking in around week 40

Questionbranch of 6 comments

hypoglycaemia. That is the whole post, but I will justify it. Everything else people worry about in c/meta is downstream of it. Titration speed, muscle cramps, the endless dose arguments — most of it resolves if you sort hypoglycaemia out first, and almost nobody does. I say this having got it wrong for 5 months. My…

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6 comments, started 7 months ago
u/adnan_karlsen25 points·7 months ago

The practical rule people converge on is 28 days at fridge temperature after first puncture, and that comes from the preservative, not the peptide.

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u/gentle_correctionMOD13 points·7 months ago·edited

This is an urgent-care question wearing a forum question's clothes. Please contact a clinician rather than waiting for replies.

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u/long_post_larryOP14 points·7 months ago

This is correct. Hypo risk is real.

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u/nadia_norgaard12 points·7 months ago

Has anyone actually got this in writing, or is it forum lore at this point?

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u/hugo_norgaard5 points·7 months ago

glycaemic control first, that is the original indication

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u/lyophile_lou3 points·7 months ago

Which country? Half the answers in this thread only apply in France.

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Type 2 diabetes as the original indication: A1c trajectories, CGM traces, hypoglycaemia risk when stacked with sulfonylureas or insulin, metformin combinations, and why the weight-loss conversation sometimes drowns out the glycaemic one.

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