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c/newbiequestions·posted 11 months ago by u/viktor_kirchner

[Results] 16 weeks on 0.5mg, full numbers, ask me anything boring

Question

Genuinely asking, not being difficult.

Everyone in c/insurancefights repeats that normal is important. I believe it, but I have never seen anyone show why, and when I search I get 7 threads of people agreeing with each other.

Is there a paper? Is there a measurement? Or is this one of those things that is true because it has been repeated since 2023?

I am not trying to be the "source?" guy. I would just like a source.

132 up / 202 down40% upvoted10 commentsid 1tzodm6 Aug 2025

10 comments

10 in this archive, depth 5

best — the order this archive was captured in

u/aurel_boateng14 points·11 months ago·edited

Strongly agree. No question is dumb here.

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[removed]5 points·11 months ago

[removed by moderator]

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u/halima_mbeki5 points·11 months ago

Are you on a pen or vial?

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u/viktor_kirchnerOP4 points·11 months ago

is this normal week 7 — yes, probably

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u/ruben_almeida2 points·11 months ago

is this normal week 7 — yes, probably

Counter-anecdote: opposite result, same dose. Which mostly tells us the variance is huge.

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u/escrow_evangelist1 point·11 months ago

be kind, condescending answers are removed

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u/mateusz_adebayo1 point·11 months ago

What does the wiki say?

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u/greta_chukwu10 points·11 months ago·edited

Respectfully this is a sample of one presented as a finding.

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u/ines_krastev8 points·11 months ago

be kind, condescending answers are removed

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u/cato_batista10 points·11 months ago·edited

Inter-lab variance on this kind of assay is routinely 1–2 points. Different column, different gradient, different integration.

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