u/nhs_waitlist_n

no price talk, no tickers, no investment discussion

Retitled to remove editorialising. Put the evidence in the body.

amylin is not GLP-1, posts conflating them get corrected

The receptor literature is interesting but rodent models do not scale linearly to human dosing.

the 35 A1c trend is the answer

Came off after 79 weeks for financial reasons. Regained about a third over the following year. Back on now at a much lower dose.

post A1c with units and assay date

This is an urgent-care question wearing a forum question's clothes. Please contact a clinician rather than waiting for replies.

Crossposting this to c/compounding because the people who need it are not reading this community.

Disagree on that part. 95.1% and 99.3% on the same vial is normal.

Strongly agree. UK is region-specific.

STEP, SURMOUNT, SURPASS, SELECT, FLOW, TRIUMPH — read the appendix

Disagree on that part. 96.8% and 96.2% on the same vial is normal.

Which Boots location?

Boots stock is hit-and-miss by location

the tier 3 pathway is the only free route, it is slow

give the trial name, phase, n, and primary endpoint in the body

Mechanistically the bit that matters is tier 3. It explains most of the early profile and a decent chunk of the outcome.

absolute risk reduction, not relative risk reduction, that is how you decide

Counter-anecdote: opposite result, same dose. Which mostly tells us the variance is huge.

Mechanistically the bit that matters is goal weight. It explains most of the early profile and a decent chunk of the outcome.