what would you tell week-1 you about glycaemic control
Asking properly rather than in a comment on somebody else’s thread: what would you tell week-1 you about glycaemic control.
Brought the whole CGM export to my appointment rather than one number. Entirely different conversation.
Kept fingersticks alongside the sensor for two weeks to sanity-check it. Worth doing once.
Variability dropped before the average did, which was visible on the sensor and invisible on the lab result.
Would rather be corrected in public than confident in private.
best — the order this archive was captured in
Identifying details redacted from the exported report above.
Sensor accuracy varies across wear, and readings on the first day are the least reliable. Calibration practice and compression artefacts explain many alarming single values.
dose for glycaemic control is not the same conversation as dose for weight
A1c is a three-month average and it lags everything
Postprandial excursions flattened out first and the fasting number took months to follow. Nobody had told me to expect that order.
Not convinced. Hypoglycaemia risk from this class alone is low; the risk you are describing comes from the combination.
That A1c change is inside the assay’s variability and the interval you measured over is too short.
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A1c, CGM, or fingersticks — which are we discussing?
That is a sensor value, not a plasma value, and the two are not interchangeable at that level of precision.
Are you quoting a diabetes trial or an obesity one?
This. Hypoglycaemia risk in this class is driven mostly by the other agents in the regimen.
What does time in range look like, not just the average?
Careful, that is a regimen change suggestion and it needs to come from whoever manages your diabetes.
sensor accuracy varies and the first day of a sensor is the worst
metformin and an incretin agonist are not in competition
CGM shows you the shape, A1c shows you the area
postprandial excursions are where most of the improvement shows up first
Small fix — insulin secretion in this class is glucose-dependent, which is precisely why the risk you describe comes from the other agent.
My TSH moved and it turned out to have nothing to do with glucose at all.
- 1That A1c change is inside the assay’s variability and the interval you…14 comments in this branch · started by u/joaquin_stanescu