[Question] A1c 5.6 but CGM says otherwise. which do i believe.
Genuinely asking, not being difficult.
Everyone in c/dosinglogs repeats that glycaemic control is important. I believe it, but I have never seen anyone show why, and when I search I get 4 threads of people agreeing with each other.
Is there a paper? Is there a measurement? Or is this one of those things that is true because it has been repeated since 2023?
I am not trying to be the "source?" guy. I would just like a source.
best — the order this archive was captured in
The reflux was genuinely awful for three weeks and then simply stopped. I know that is not useful information, but it is what happened.
Australia here. Waited 2 months on a list, gave up, went private, and the total cost was roughly what I expected.
Has anyone actually got this in writing, or is it forum lore at this point?
The practical rule people converge on is 28 days at fridge temperature after first puncture, and that comes from the preservative, not the peptide.
CGM traces tell a story, numbers alone do not
Dead space in the needle hub holds a small but non-trivial volume. On low-volume draws that can be several units.
The evidence standard in c/vendorvetting gets called too strict about once a month, and every time, the thread ends with the complainant agreeing.